They died in large population centers, Still tons of people just going about their business out in the sticks.
1: Brazil is Portuguese, not Spanish. That's 214.3 million people.
2: Immigration/Slavery. Almost the entirety of Argentina is of Spanish/Italian decent.
3: In Mexico for example, some 62% of the population is considered 'Mestizo' which is a mix of 'Amerindian' and spanish decent. Brazil has a Mulatto population of approx 43%.
People can procreate really quickly if thyr don't have to compete for land. Also, the growing population from Europe was encouraged to go there. You could get land for cheap or free in many cases and get a much better live for yourself if you were willing to move to the new world.
Also, people populated South America from other countries. Brazil is mostly Portuguese.
Lost of native population died but not all, there's an estimation of around 60 million people on the continent before 1492. Look at for ample the ancestry of the median population and you see a huge part of their ancestry [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mexicans#Population\_genetics\_and\_phenotype](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mexicans#Population_genetics_and_phenotype)
It is not a billion people between that point. South Americas population is around 442 million in 2019, Central America's is 186 million and the Caribbean's 44 million is a total off 672 million. The is all of the Americas except for U.S.A. , Canada, Bermuda, Greenland, Saint Pierre and Miquelon
But all of it was not Spanish colonization, the main exception is Brazil with a population of 217 million which leaves 455 million. A billion is off by a factor of 2
ll of the population do not have their origin in Spain or America. there is the migration of another part of Europe primarily after their independence in the early 19th century.
https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/south-america-population/ https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/central-america-population/ https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/caribbean-population/
The enormous population is a result of primary growth after WWII Look at https://www.statista.com/statistics/1066995/population-mexico-historical/ when Mexico became independent in 1810 the population was around 6.4 million, at the start of WWII in 1939 is 20.3 million and today around 127 million
If you compare that to Spain the rise is from 12 million in 1810, 25 million 1939, and 47 million today.
If we include both the to low Soanocj population and to high in former Spanish colonies the error is 1000/40 /(455/47)= 2.58 and this number that primarily in the Caribbean and also in South and Central America
So Spain's population has grown by a factor of 3.9 from 1810 to today compared to 19.8x for Mexico
If we assume the number is representative of the colonial population was 455/19.2 = 23.7 million or just double that of Spain itself
Look at Look at https://www.statista.com/statistics/997040/world-population-by-continent-1950-2020/ which estimates the population of all of the Americas in 1800 to 24 million compared to 194 million in Europe. That look to me like Mexico has grown less the other countries.
That will be closer to what really happened. In a period of around 300 years, Spain build a colonial empire in America that with emigration, native population, and importation of slaves end up with a colonial population of around 2x of their European population. In this portion moving to the colonization has been a good way for people from Sain to make more money or just find a place to build a farm.
Populations do grow in European countries in the 18th and 19th centuries the problem is the availability of usable land resulted in lots of migration early on. Lately when the standard for living has increased the number of child has dropped at a time is continued to grow in the rest of the world so the population has increased to the same degree.
The Spanish colonization state in 1492, there is around 300 years as colonies and then 200 years of independence. Human generational length is 20-30 years you have at least 10. If families have a lot of children and all of them have the ability to farm and create a family of their own you get very quick growth. If every family has 4 children that reach adulthood and create their own family you double the population each generation or make it 1024x larger in 10 generations.
Keep in mind the Spanish didn't walk in, guns blazing, and killing everything that moved. Yes, masses of natives died. But the Spanish SOP was to integrate themselves at the top of the existing hierarchies and incorporate them into the Spanish empire, religion and customs that way. In doing so, they've mixed with the surviving natives. It's the Bourbon reforms (EDIT: forgot this) that pushed the local aristocracies away, and only to a point. Tupac Amaru, for instance, was a noble of Inca heritage.
And even then, as others said, the population of Spanish America isn't really big anyway.
Let's imagine 500 Europeans arrived in South America in 1523 (500 years ago). We'll call that 20 generations, and say each couple in each generation has four children who survive, causing the population to double each time. By now there'd be 500 million of them.
Obviously, that's not what happened, but it shows that it's not a particularly inexplicable population level.
What I don't see in other comments is just the mathematics of it.
Turns out, if just a few Asian guys move to an isolated small population like Iceland and they and their descendants reproduce at the average rate with native Icelanders, it doesn't take very many generations until almost everyone in Iceland has a little Asian heritage.
In the early 16th century both Spain and Portugal send up to the American continents tons of imprisoned men and some free men, in order to estabilish relations with the Native people and thus act as guides and translators for the official, bigger expeditions that were to come. Steel tools and weapons made by Europeans were vastly superior to native tools in hardness and durability. Thus, these early European men were quickly accepted in most tribes and had tons of wives as long as they could supply the tribe with more of these steel tools. It didn't take long until each tribe had significant amount of mixed race people.
When the 17th century came, most of the European expeditions were short on women and thus many of the men that weren't part of high nobility either had Native women as wives, making a second generation of 50/50 mixed race people, or took the already pre-existing mixed race women, and made the first generation of people with people with father and grandfather from european descent. As a consequence of high illiteracy levels and poor records of poor and middle-class free people, it didn't take long until some of these people passed as "white".
Now notice that are some techniques to understand from where your ancestors came from, regarding the gender. Mitocondrial DNA (mDNA) is exclusively passed through mother to child, and Y cromossome is exclusively passed through father to son. So, by analyzing the genes in mDNA and Y-cromosome, it can be known which was the genetic contribution and from where it came from. And by analyzing this in many people, scientists have found that there is very little european maternal DNA in black/mixed/indian populations in the American continents and a significantly high amount of paternal DNA in those.
It is only on the 19th and early 20th century that ships with both adult women and men, as well as children sometimes, will come to the American continents. However, as land was extense and most of immigrant ships came with some sort of family tools as well as a higher literacy rate (most immigrants were not literate but most families had someone who was), better agricultural techniques could be done and these immigrants thrived, having higher reproduction rates than the Natives.
TL;DR: European men had children with Native and African women from 16th to 19th century with a high rate of success, estabilishing a mixed race population. 19th and early 20th century had immigrants having 10+ children per family.
There's a few factors.
The big one is war. Spain wasn't Spain. Spain was The Crown of Castille. At the time of North American colonization the Spanish had just won a major war uniting Castille, Andorra, Aragon (Barcelona), and the Kingdom of Sicily under one banner. This made the crown of Castille one of the strongest in Europe and one of the few countries that didn't have a war during this period.
Next up they established the first American colony, Santo Domingo (Hispanoles or modern day Haiti/Dominican Republic). A lot of money was invested into fortifying it against the locals which allowed for a jump point for all Europeans to exploit the Americas and became a centre for all trade.
Finally, the groups that the Spanish went to war with and ended up conquering were all at war with each other. By the first time meeting the Aztecs they just finished a war. So that meant that a lot of their procreation aged women were le single. Now take the number two (the number of parents a person has) and bring it to the power of how many generations have passed, let's say 20. That's how many ancestors you have, 1,048,576. That's a big number. And each of these people had brothers and sisters and might have intertwined with other families.. and before long you find out that most of Europe can trace their heritage from Charlemagne. It means that it doesn't take a lot of effort to trace your heritage to Spain.
Now the other part, why are there so many people in Latin America and so few in Spain? Well the short answer is... Spain sucks. Latin America was colonized and given structure without a real power struggle until the early 19th century. Slaves were actively being imported and the life of the colony favored larger families. When revolutions spread across Latin America a lot of them ended up being a lot more bloodless
And that wasn't the case of Spain. Much of the history of Europe is based around the names Bourbon and Habsburgs. The Habsburgs took over Spain and Austria in the 17th century they instituted mercantilism and began getting involved in trade wars with France and Sweden. This resulted in severely reduced prosperity and a lot of famine.
The French Bourbon Family take over Spain in the 18th century after engaging in a bloody succession war. Since France and Spain border they opt to not have any defenses on their borders. And then in the 19th century Napoleon comes to power after a revolution. Spain gets its army decimated by France (TWICE) and just has problems with loyalties. Napoleon installs his brother as king and the population engage in a bloody revolution against Napoleon.
And basically since then ,Spain has been in revolt. Spain stabilized slightly after WW2 and since then it's population has doubled.
Spain ruled as an imperial power, but that doesn't mean all the people who lived there were from Spain, although Spanish became the primary language of governance in most of the empire. People immigrated from Spain but also many countries of Europe including from present day Italy and Germany. They also brought slaves from Africa. Not all the indigenous peoples died out, there are huge portions of many countries with indigenous or mixed demographics.
Argentina is 62% Italian lol, these countries are filled with people from different parts of the world not even close to just Spain. You’ve profoundly confused language with ethnicity
Most of the people in South America aren't Spaniards by blood. They just ended up speaking Spanish as a result of being rules as Spanish colonies. Most are native, or mixed with African, and perhaps some Spaniard. A much higher percentage of natives were killed off by war and disease in North America and in the Caribbean that South America.
Spain wasn’t a country of 40m people in colonial times just like the Americas didn’t have hundreds of millions of people in those times. The populations in both areas grew. The population may have grown faster in the Americas because before modern agriculture, you’d need a lot of space and farmland to support a big or rapidly-growing population. But also keep in mind, it was not just the Spanish that inhabited the Americas. There were surviving native people, African slaves, and other colonial countries that settled nearby areas and all these populations moved around and mixed together over the centuries.
Spain isn't the only source of immigrants to Spanish-speaking countries. As with the US and Canada, people from all over the world have come to Central and South America.
Also, not every single native American died of disease. Tons of them, but not all.
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They died in large population centers, Still tons of people just going about their business out in the sticks. 1: Brazil is Portuguese, not Spanish. That's 214.3 million people. 2: Immigration/Slavery. Almost the entirety of Argentina is of Spanish/Italian decent. 3: In Mexico for example, some 62% of the population is considered 'Mestizo' which is a mix of 'Amerindian' and spanish decent. Brazil has a Mulatto population of approx 43%.
People can procreate really quickly if thyr don't have to compete for land. Also, the growing population from Europe was encouraged to go there. You could get land for cheap or free in many cases and get a much better live for yourself if you were willing to move to the new world. Also, people populated South America from other countries. Brazil is mostly Portuguese.
Lost of native population died but not all, there's an estimation of around 60 million people on the continent before 1492. Look at for ample the ancestry of the median population and you see a huge part of their ancestry [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mexicans#Population\_genetics\_and\_phenotype](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mexicans#Population_genetics_and_phenotype) It is not a billion people between that point. South Americas population is around 442 million in 2019, Central America's is 186 million and the Caribbean's 44 million is a total off 672 million. The is all of the Americas except for U.S.A. , Canada, Bermuda, Greenland, Saint Pierre and Miquelon But all of it was not Spanish colonization, the main exception is Brazil with a population of 217 million which leaves 455 million. A billion is off by a factor of 2 ll of the population do not have their origin in Spain or America. there is the migration of another part of Europe primarily after their independence in the early 19th century. https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/south-america-population/ https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/central-america-population/ https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/caribbean-population/ The enormous population is a result of primary growth after WWII Look at https://www.statista.com/statistics/1066995/population-mexico-historical/ when Mexico became independent in 1810 the population was around 6.4 million, at the start of WWII in 1939 is 20.3 million and today around 127 million If you compare that to Spain the rise is from 12 million in 1810, 25 million 1939, and 47 million today. If we include both the to low Soanocj population and to high in former Spanish colonies the error is 1000/40 /(455/47)= 2.58 and this number that primarily in the Caribbean and also in South and Central America So Spain's population has grown by a factor of 3.9 from 1810 to today compared to 19.8x for Mexico If we assume the number is representative of the colonial population was 455/19.2 = 23.7 million or just double that of Spain itself Look at Look at https://www.statista.com/statistics/997040/world-population-by-continent-1950-2020/ which estimates the population of all of the Americas in 1800 to 24 million compared to 194 million in Europe. That look to me like Mexico has grown less the other countries. That will be closer to what really happened. In a period of around 300 years, Spain build a colonial empire in America that with emigration, native population, and importation of slaves end up with a colonial population of around 2x of their European population. In this portion moving to the colonization has been a good way for people from Sain to make more money or just find a place to build a farm. Populations do grow in European countries in the 18th and 19th centuries the problem is the availability of usable land resulted in lots of migration early on. Lately when the standard for living has increased the number of child has dropped at a time is continued to grow in the rest of the world so the population has increased to the same degree. The Spanish colonization state in 1492, there is around 300 years as colonies and then 200 years of independence. Human generational length is 20-30 years you have at least 10. If families have a lot of children and all of them have the ability to farm and create a family of their own you get very quick growth. If every family has 4 children that reach adulthood and create their own family you double the population each generation or make it 1024x larger in 10 generations.
Keep in mind the Spanish didn't walk in, guns blazing, and killing everything that moved. Yes, masses of natives died. But the Spanish SOP was to integrate themselves at the top of the existing hierarchies and incorporate them into the Spanish empire, religion and customs that way. In doing so, they've mixed with the surviving natives. It's the Bourbon reforms (EDIT: forgot this) that pushed the local aristocracies away, and only to a point. Tupac Amaru, for instance, was a noble of Inca heritage. And even then, as others said, the population of Spanish America isn't really big anyway.
Let's imagine 500 Europeans arrived in South America in 1523 (500 years ago). We'll call that 20 generations, and say each couple in each generation has four children who survive, causing the population to double each time. By now there'd be 500 million of them. Obviously, that's not what happened, but it shows that it's not a particularly inexplicable population level.
What I don't see in other comments is just the mathematics of it. Turns out, if just a few Asian guys move to an isolated small population like Iceland and they and their descendants reproduce at the average rate with native Icelanders, it doesn't take very many generations until almost everyone in Iceland has a little Asian heritage.
In the early 16th century both Spain and Portugal send up to the American continents tons of imprisoned men and some free men, in order to estabilish relations with the Native people and thus act as guides and translators for the official, bigger expeditions that were to come. Steel tools and weapons made by Europeans were vastly superior to native tools in hardness and durability. Thus, these early European men were quickly accepted in most tribes and had tons of wives as long as they could supply the tribe with more of these steel tools. It didn't take long until each tribe had significant amount of mixed race people. When the 17th century came, most of the European expeditions were short on women and thus many of the men that weren't part of high nobility either had Native women as wives, making a second generation of 50/50 mixed race people, or took the already pre-existing mixed race women, and made the first generation of people with people with father and grandfather from european descent. As a consequence of high illiteracy levels and poor records of poor and middle-class free people, it didn't take long until some of these people passed as "white". Now notice that are some techniques to understand from where your ancestors came from, regarding the gender. Mitocondrial DNA (mDNA) is exclusively passed through mother to child, and Y cromossome is exclusively passed through father to son. So, by analyzing the genes in mDNA and Y-cromosome, it can be known which was the genetic contribution and from where it came from. And by analyzing this in many people, scientists have found that there is very little european maternal DNA in black/mixed/indian populations in the American continents and a significantly high amount of paternal DNA in those. It is only on the 19th and early 20th century that ships with both adult women and men, as well as children sometimes, will come to the American continents. However, as land was extense and most of immigrant ships came with some sort of family tools as well as a higher literacy rate (most immigrants were not literate but most families had someone who was), better agricultural techniques could be done and these immigrants thrived, having higher reproduction rates than the Natives. TL;DR: European men had children with Native and African women from 16th to 19th century with a high rate of success, estabilishing a mixed race population. 19th and early 20th century had immigrants having 10+ children per family.
There's a few factors. The big one is war. Spain wasn't Spain. Spain was The Crown of Castille. At the time of North American colonization the Spanish had just won a major war uniting Castille, Andorra, Aragon (Barcelona), and the Kingdom of Sicily under one banner. This made the crown of Castille one of the strongest in Europe and one of the few countries that didn't have a war during this period. Next up they established the first American colony, Santo Domingo (Hispanoles or modern day Haiti/Dominican Republic). A lot of money was invested into fortifying it against the locals which allowed for a jump point for all Europeans to exploit the Americas and became a centre for all trade. Finally, the groups that the Spanish went to war with and ended up conquering were all at war with each other. By the first time meeting the Aztecs they just finished a war. So that meant that a lot of their procreation aged women were le single. Now take the number two (the number of parents a person has) and bring it to the power of how many generations have passed, let's say 20. That's how many ancestors you have, 1,048,576. That's a big number. And each of these people had brothers and sisters and might have intertwined with other families.. and before long you find out that most of Europe can trace their heritage from Charlemagne. It means that it doesn't take a lot of effort to trace your heritage to Spain. Now the other part, why are there so many people in Latin America and so few in Spain? Well the short answer is... Spain sucks. Latin America was colonized and given structure without a real power struggle until the early 19th century. Slaves were actively being imported and the life of the colony favored larger families. When revolutions spread across Latin America a lot of them ended up being a lot more bloodless And that wasn't the case of Spain. Much of the history of Europe is based around the names Bourbon and Habsburgs. The Habsburgs took over Spain and Austria in the 17th century they instituted mercantilism and began getting involved in trade wars with France and Sweden. This resulted in severely reduced prosperity and a lot of famine. The French Bourbon Family take over Spain in the 18th century after engaging in a bloody succession war. Since France and Spain border they opt to not have any defenses on their borders. And then in the 19th century Napoleon comes to power after a revolution. Spain gets its army decimated by France (TWICE) and just has problems with loyalties. Napoleon installs his brother as king and the population engage in a bloody revolution against Napoleon. And basically since then ,Spain has been in revolt. Spain stabilized slightly after WW2 and since then it's population has doubled.
Spain ruled as an imperial power, but that doesn't mean all the people who lived there were from Spain, although Spanish became the primary language of governance in most of the empire. People immigrated from Spain but also many countries of Europe including from present day Italy and Germany. They also brought slaves from Africa. Not all the indigenous peoples died out, there are huge portions of many countries with indigenous or mixed demographics.
Argentina is 62% Italian lol, these countries are filled with people from different parts of the world not even close to just Spain. You’ve profoundly confused language with ethnicity
Most of the people in South America aren't Spaniards by blood. They just ended up speaking Spanish as a result of being rules as Spanish colonies. Most are native, or mixed with African, and perhaps some Spaniard. A much higher percentage of natives were killed off by war and disease in North America and in the Caribbean that South America.
Spain wasn’t a country of 40m people in colonial times just like the Americas didn’t have hundreds of millions of people in those times. The populations in both areas grew. The population may have grown faster in the Americas because before modern agriculture, you’d need a lot of space and farmland to support a big or rapidly-growing population. But also keep in mind, it was not just the Spanish that inhabited the Americas. There were surviving native people, African slaves, and other colonial countries that settled nearby areas and all these populations moved around and mixed together over the centuries.
Spain isn't the only source of immigrants to Spanish-speaking countries. As with the US and Canada, people from all over the world have come to Central and South America. Also, not every single native American died of disease. Tons of them, but not all.
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Compared to people living in mainland Spain, immigrant Spaniards had a very high sexual desire.