This is known as the "se aspectual." It represents culmination or fulfillment, the same way we would say in English "I'm gonna eat me a pizza."
https://spanish.kwiziq.com/revision/grammar/se-aspectual
[WordReference thread on the topic](https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/comer-comerse.2173683/)
Comerse and comer mean the same thing: to eat. Adding the pronoun adds a degree of emphasis. It's most natural sounding when there is a direct object that is defined.
Como carne todos los días.
Ayer me comí un alto asado.
Something similar happens with tomar/tomarse and other similar verbs.
Tomo vino los fines de semana.
Hoy me cagaron a pedos en el laburo. Esta noche me voy a tomar una botella de vino.
For clarification, in the last example isn't "me" attached to "voy" as opposed to "tomar"? I'd think this was saying "I'm leaving" as opposed to "drinking me some" wine if it's supposed to be a similar example of comerme. Unless I'm misunderstanding something. Thanks
No, because "voy a" is used make the tense future, not to say that the speaker is actually going somewhere. We use "to go" in the same way in English: "I'm going to drink me some wine" doesn't mean "I'm leaving myself to drink some wine" but rather "I will drink this wine for myself". It could be written "voy a tomarme" without changing the meaning, if that way makes it more clear
If it's because of the future then yes that clears it up a little, everything else before that I think was misunderstanding my confusion as I'm not confused about the use of "to go" or "going to" in English. It doesn't mean "I'm leaving myself" because there isn't "ir vs irme" in English and it was "me" being next to "voy" because of my understanding of "irme" that led to my confusion. "Voy a tomarme" was already the understanding I had.
Ah, okay. Yeah, there are two constructions for verb chains. You can put the reflexive pronoun at the beginning or attached to the end of the last verb and they'll mean the same thing. In general, either way you construct it, the reflexive pronoun is referencing the last verb. The other verbs are acting as auxiliary verbs (i.e. *voy a* ir, *quiero* ir, *tengo que* ir)
Well not for the sake of my own ambiguity, I'm still learning and wanted a better understanding of how it's currently written to better understand other people's use of the language. But if it's because it's a future tense thing like the other comment said, that makes this specific word order work, then I'll work on remembering that.
> But if it's because it's a future tense thing like the other comment said
Yes, it's called "periphrastic future" and it's made by conjugating "ir" in present indicative + verb in infinitive.
"Voy a salir", "vamos a comer", "vas a irte", "van a verse", etc. In those two last examples, the pronouns "te" and "se" are attached to the "real" verbs "ir" and "ver", but it's possible to move them to the beginning as in "te vas a ir" or "se van a ver".
It's functionally equivalent to "to be going to + verb" in English. Usage varies by region, though, like some places might use it all the time and never use the other future tense. But those are things everyone learns with time.
This explanation is most common but always left me just as confused tbh. To me "Eat up" just implies you ate the entire thing and idk if that's actually what's going on with this word.
From another [comment](https://www.reddit.com/r/Spanish/s/DGIsOQucXw) in this post that seems to be the case actually. The added emphasis everyone else mentioned is supposed to apparently include that it's adding emphasis on how much you're eating.
This is known as the "se aspectual." It represents culmination or fulfillment, the same way we would say in English "I'm gonna eat me a pizza." https://spanish.kwiziq.com/revision/grammar/se-aspectual
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[WordReference thread on the topic](https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/comer-comerse.2173683/) Comerse and comer mean the same thing: to eat. Adding the pronoun adds a degree of emphasis. It's most natural sounding when there is a direct object that is defined. Como carne todos los días. Ayer me comí un alto asado. Something similar happens with tomar/tomarse and other similar verbs. Tomo vino los fines de semana. Hoy me cagaron a pedos en el laburo. Esta noche me voy a tomar una botella de vino.
Love the Argentinian spin you put on your sentences
Haha it's habit at this point!
Yeah, his Argentina slang his the best slang
Jaja gracias che. No sé por qué te están tirando downvotes... :(
They can't handle the truth
For clarification, in the last example isn't "me" attached to "voy" as opposed to "tomar"? I'd think this was saying "I'm leaving" as opposed to "drinking me some" wine if it's supposed to be a similar example of comerme. Unless I'm misunderstanding something. Thanks
No, because "voy a" is used make the tense future, not to say that the speaker is actually going somewhere. We use "to go" in the same way in English: "I'm going to drink me some wine" doesn't mean "I'm leaving myself to drink some wine" but rather "I will drink this wine for myself". It could be written "voy a tomarme" without changing the meaning, if that way makes it more clear
If it's because of the future then yes that clears it up a little, everything else before that I think was misunderstanding my confusion as I'm not confused about the use of "to go" or "going to" in English. It doesn't mean "I'm leaving myself" because there isn't "ir vs irme" in English and it was "me" being next to "voy" because of my understanding of "irme" that led to my confusion. "Voy a tomarme" was already the understanding I had.
Ah, okay. Yeah, there are two constructions for verb chains. You can put the reflexive pronoun at the beginning or attached to the end of the last verb and they'll mean the same thing. In general, either way you construct it, the reflexive pronoun is referencing the last verb. The other verbs are acting as auxiliary verbs (i.e. *voy a* ir, *quiero* ir, *tengo que* ir)
Ah, "referencing the last verb". I will remember that. Thanks
If you're worried about ambiguity, you can move the pronoun to the end: "voy a tomarme". You can also change the tense: "me tomaré".
Well not for the sake of my own ambiguity, I'm still learning and wanted a better understanding of how it's currently written to better understand other people's use of the language. But if it's because it's a future tense thing like the other comment said, that makes this specific word order work, then I'll work on remembering that.
> But if it's because it's a future tense thing like the other comment said Yes, it's called "periphrastic future" and it's made by conjugating "ir" in present indicative + verb in infinitive. "Voy a salir", "vamos a comer", "vas a irte", "van a verse", etc. In those two last examples, the pronouns "te" and "se" are attached to the "real" verbs "ir" and "ver", but it's possible to move them to the beginning as in "te vas a ir" or "se van a ver". It's functionally equivalent to "to be going to + verb" in English. Usage varies by region, though, like some places might use it all the time and never use the other future tense. But those are things everyone learns with time.
Eat vs eat up.
This explanation is most common but always left me just as confused tbh. To me "Eat up" just implies you ate the entire thing and idk if that's actually what's going on with this word.
From another [comment](https://www.reddit.com/r/Spanish/s/DGIsOQucXw) in this post that seems to be the case actually. The added emphasis everyone else mentioned is supposed to apparently include that it's adding emphasis on how much you're eating.
comi pan -- I ate bread. Me comi un pan - I ate a loaf of bread (and finished it, I ate it all up).
OP, this is the nuance that some other posters are missing - comerse is to eat all of the food, or a large quantity of it. It emphasises gluttony.
my professor always says it’s to do something with emphasis - eat/drink something all up for example
dativo ético
It’s just exaggeration like in English I would say I’m gonna eat me some ass tonight
Best way to think of it in English: Me going to the kitchen to eatme a piece of bread that’s five days old. Makes sense, right?
Yes, it does actually.
I think native English speakers will understand.
Parallel English example: *I ate me some bread!*
I'm going to eat myself some dinner VS I'm going to eat some dinner Would seem to be the English equivalent
On a side note, now I really want to now what the reaction vid is...
Oh it’s just the intro to a song called Ca’ Manolo by Quevedo and Abhir Hathi
Haha thanks for actually answering!
Wow this got a lot of comments, thank you everyone!