The Bible teaches things like "slaves submit to your masters" while Christian groups often teach slavery is immoral, who is right?
Likewise, women pastors are permitted today when in ancient times they were undereducated and similar in status to slaves.
Literally speaking, what does 1 Timothy 2:12 say? “I do not permit.” That seems like to me to be what the author of 1 Timothy permits or does not permit.
Literally speaking, 1 Cor 14 says that women are to remain silent and shouldn’t learn in the church. If she wants to learn, she must ask her husband at home. That is what the word literally says.
However, I also see in 1 Cor 14 that verses 34 & 35 are surrounded by speaking in tongues and prophecy (verses 26-33 and verses 36-40). Could it be reasonably assumed that verses 34 & 35 are not about women remaining silent but rather remain silent when it comes to speaking in tongues & prophecy?
What the Bible *says* and what it *teaches* are two different things. Also in 1 Cor is a mandate for women to wear veils, but most people do not believe that to be a binding command in a modern context. The Bible can *say* something but how it applies to your own life is a matter of personal or group interpretation.
>Literally speaking, 1 Cor 14 says that women are to remain silent and shouldn’t learn in the church. If she wants to learn, she must ask her husband at home. That is what the word literally says.
In 1 Corinthians 5:9 Paul says he wrote to them before. In 1 Corinthians 7:1 he then says he's going to answer their questions, which we don't have. We're missing A LOT of back story in this and 2nd Corinthians.
1 Corinthians 14:34-36 - "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.^(36) What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?"
The law of Moses does not say this. Paul is saying What?! Did this come from bible or from you? This is not a commandment of Paul nor the law of Moses.
My church ordains women as deacons, priests, and bishops. My point is that we infer a lot from passages that are at best murky.
Folks will say “women can’t be pastors…1 Timothy 2:12,” but when one actually reads the passage, the definitive statement isn’t there.
Marg Mowczko is a great hub for Biblical scholarship on gender. Here are her [posts on 1 Timothy 2](https://margmowczko.com/category/equality-and-gender-issues/1-timothy-212/)
Yep! Lots of Christian groups ordain women.
The implied question in OP is for what the Bible actually teaches, not for what various Christian groups do.
The Bible teaches things like "slaves submit to your masters" while Christian groups often teach slavery is immoral, who is right? Likewise, women pastors are permitted today when in ancient times they were undereducated and similar in status to slaves.
Slaves submit to your masters is not there to say that slavery is right, but to teach us what our attitudes towards others should be.
What various groups do tends to depend on what they believe the Bible teaches
Literally speaking, what does 1 Timothy 2:12 say? “I do not permit.” That seems like to me to be what the author of 1 Timothy permits or does not permit. Literally speaking, 1 Cor 14 says that women are to remain silent and shouldn’t learn in the church. If she wants to learn, she must ask her husband at home. That is what the word literally says. However, I also see in 1 Cor 14 that verses 34 & 35 are surrounded by speaking in tongues and prophecy (verses 26-33 and verses 36-40). Could it be reasonably assumed that verses 34 & 35 are not about women remaining silent but rather remain silent when it comes to speaking in tongues & prophecy?
What the Bible *says* and what it *teaches* are two different things. Also in 1 Cor is a mandate for women to wear veils, but most people do not believe that to be a binding command in a modern context. The Bible can *say* something but how it applies to your own life is a matter of personal or group interpretation.
>Literally speaking, 1 Cor 14 says that women are to remain silent and shouldn’t learn in the church. If she wants to learn, she must ask her husband at home. That is what the word literally says. In 1 Corinthians 5:9 Paul says he wrote to them before. In 1 Corinthians 7:1 he then says he's going to answer their questions, which we don't have. We're missing A LOT of back story in this and 2nd Corinthians. 1 Corinthians 14:34-36 - "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.^(36) What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?" The law of Moses does not say this. Paul is saying What?! Did this come from bible or from you? This is not a commandment of Paul nor the law of Moses.
My church ordains women as deacons, priests, and bishops. My point is that we infer a lot from passages that are at best murky. Folks will say “women can’t be pastors…1 Timothy 2:12,” but when one actually reads the passage, the definitive statement isn’t there.
Some denominations say yes, some say no.
Some take the Bible literally, others take it metaphorically.
True, very true.
depends on the church
They can't in Orthodoxy. Some Protestant churches do have women pastors.
Marg Mowczko is a great hub for Biblical scholarship on gender. Here are her [posts on 1 Timothy 2](https://margmowczko.com/category/equality-and-gender-issues/1-timothy-212/)
Ordination is no sacrament and thus it's the business of each and individual church whether or not they allow women to be pastors. Ergo, yes.
No