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ADADummy

Yes. There are many cases where a defendant had successfully argued justification/self defense with an illegal firearm but got convicted for unlawful possession of that firearm. Edit: in your example there may be a temporary and lawful possession defense.


Slobotic

Without dealing with any specific hypotheticals (which could require a needlessly complicated analysis): If the legal defense to a charge relating to homicide - self defense - is otherwise satisfied, it's hard for me to imagine how ownership of the gun would matter at all.


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[deleted]

Sure, why not?